Zulip Chat Archive

Stream: new members

Topic: Integral_infty


Parivash (Aug 23 2022 at 19:40):

Hi,
Can we prove this integral by lean?
0x2nexp(x2a2)dx=π(2n)!n!(a2)2n+1\int_{0}^{\infty}x^{2n}exp(-\frac{x^2}{a^2})dx=\sqrt \pi \frac{(2n)!}{n!}(\frac{a}{2})^{2n+1}

Jason Rute (Aug 24 2022 at 11:42):

I would be curious to know the answer to this, just to see how far calculus has come in Lean. I doubt mathlib has this exact integral, but the proof I believe is induction starting with the Guassian integral as the base case and then repeated integration by parts. (I haven't worked out the details to be sure.)

Ruben Van de Velde (Aug 24 2022 at 11:57):

A good first step would be to state the lemma as a #mwe

Moritz Doll (Aug 24 2022 at 13:08):

The crucial point is integration by parts. This certainly can be done by hand using integration by parts for interval (the meat of the proof Jason mentioned is in docs#complex.Gamma_integral_add_one ), but the more structured approach would be to prove integration by parts for Schwartz functions

Parivash (Aug 24 2022 at 15:13):

@Jason Rute
Thank you Jason for providing useful links, I'll look at them. As I reach a result I will inform you


Last updated: Dec 20 2023 at 11:08 UTC