Zulip Chat Archive
Stream: mathlib4
Topic: SummableUniformlyOn
Chris Birkbeck (Mar 31 2025 at 10:48):
As part of #13349 one suggestion I've had from @David Loeffler is to maybe define the notion of summableUniformlyOn (and multipliable versions), for infinite sums/products that converge uniformly on some subset. I guess we could start with something like:
def HasProdUniformlyOn (f : ι → β → α) (g : β → α) (s : Set β) : Prop :=
TendstoUniformlyOn (fun (s : Finset ι) b ↦ ∏ i ∈ s, f i b) g atTop s
and then build the API from there. Are there any thoughts/suggestions on this approach?
Andrew Yang (Mar 31 2025 at 11:54):
I have no idea how to do it properly but I agree we should definitely have some form of this.
Andrew Yang (Nov 05 2025 at 12:17):
Why does HasProdUniformlyOn take a family of sets instead of just one set?
Context: I am trying to restate docs#tendstoUniformlyOn_tsum and friends to HasProdUniformlyOn and I am wondering if we were happy with the following or if we want the set family version.
theorem summableUniformlyOn_tsum {f : α → β → F} (hu : Summable u) {s : Set β}
(hfu : ∀ n x, x ∈ s → ‖f n x‖ ≤ u n) : SummableUniformlyOn f {s}
I am guessing we should just make SummableUniformlyOn take only one set but I have little experience around these.
Chris Birkbeck (Nov 05 2025 at 13:26):
IIRC it was todo with being able to match or use what we have for UniformOnFun which takes a family of sets.
Andrew Yang (Nov 05 2025 at 13:52):
It is hard to recover β →ᵤ[𝔖] F from β →ᵤ[{s}] F but it is easy to recover SummableUniformlyOn f 𝔖 from SummableUniformlyOn f {s} via ∀ s ∈ 𝔖, SummableUniformlyOn f {s}. So I think it is reasonable to stick with SummableUniformlyOn f {s} (i.e. redefine SummableUniformlyOn to take a set instead of a bunch of sets) so that the *On predicates have a more uniform API?
Chris Birkbeck (Nov 05 2025 at 13:54):
I sort of agree, so far I've only used if for a single set. But maybe @David Loeffler has some thoughts on this?
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 16:49):
Is it actually true that SummableUniformlyOn f 𝔖 is equivalent to ∀ s ∈ 𝔖, SummableUniformlyOn f {s}? It is true for HasSum, but for the Summable statement we might have some horrible situation where the sum over each s was convergent but the limit depended on which s you took. Probably this is impossible if the target space is Hausdorff but it's not "definitionally impossible".
Andrew Yang (Nov 05 2025 at 16:53):
Good point. I agree my claim above is not always true. But do we need this extra bit of flexibility?
Andrew Yang (Nov 05 2025 at 17:17):
Here is the PR attempting the change: #31293
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 18:37):
I think the extra bit of flexibility (coming from the difference between∀ s ∈ 𝔖, ∃ g, ... vs ∃ g, ∀ s∈ 𝔖, ...) is not that useful, because the two conditions are equivalent when the target space is T2, and without this sanity assumption the theory of infinite sums / products is a mess anyway. I think it's a good idea to get rid of the set families.
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 19:28):
David Loeffler said:
Is it actually true that
SummableUniformlyOn f 𝔖is equivalent to∀ s ∈ 𝔖, SummableUniformlyOn f {s}? It is true forHasSum, but for theSummablestatement we might have some horrible situation where the sum over eachswas convergent but the limit depended on whichsyou took. Probably this is impossible if the target space is Hausdorff but it's not "definitionally impossible".
Uniform spaces are pretty nice, they are R1-separated, meaning if you quotient out by the equivalence relation of "topologically indistinguishable" (pass to the docs#SeparationQuotient) you get a hausdorff space
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 19:36):
And for a set of topologically indistinguishable points, if you converge to one you converge to all, so that shouldn't affect summability.
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 19:44):
@Aaron Liu Interesting. Are you saying you can deduce SummableUniformlyOn f 𝔖 from ∀ s ∈ 𝔖, SummableUniformlyOn f {s} without assuming the target of f is Hausdorff (or T0, which is equivalent in this setting)?
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 19:45):
I'm saying, it shouldn't be a problem to assume all your spaces are hausdorff (since they basically are)
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 19:46):
I do not understand what you mean, since it is definitely not the case that a uniform space is automatically Hausdorff.
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 19:47):
But a T0 uniform space is hausdorff, and all spaces are essentially T0
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 19:48):
You are using words like "basically" and "essentially" in ways that I am struggling to attach a rigorous meaning to.
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 19:48):
I was using "basically" in an informal manner
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 19:49):
"all spaces are essentially T0" means that every space is equivalent to a T0 space
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 19:49):
Where "equivalent" means what, may I ask?
Andrew Yang (Nov 05 2025 at 19:50):
I think what Aaron is trying to say is yes to the following
David Loeffler said:
Aaron Liu Interesting. Are you saying you can deduce
SummableUniformlyOn f 𝔖from∀ s ∈ 𝔖, SummableUniformlyOn f {s}without assuming the target offis Hausdorff (or T0, which is equivalent in this setting)?
Because you can do this on the t0 quotient (i.e. quotient by the inseparable relation), and any lift would still be a limit.
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 19:52):
I think that's what he's trying to say as well, but it's not self-explanatory to me that this works.
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 19:53):
David Loeffler said:
Where "equivalent" means what, may I ask?
Continuous function with continuous not-quite-inverse such that both ways composition is pointwise inseparable from identity function
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 20:00):
This is not what "topological equivalence" means in mathlib (where it's a synonym for "homeomorphism").
To explain a little more what I was getting at above: if X, Y are uniform spaces, then functions X -> Y are a uniform space in a natural way (this is UniformOnFun in mathlib). With this uniform structure, is the separation quotient of X --> Y the same as X --> (separation quotient of Y)? It seems plausible, but not entirely self-evident; and I think this what's needed to make the argument work.
(EDIT: I mean uniformly-continuous functions here, not arbitrary functions, sorry.)
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 20:00):
yes it is
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 20:01):
obviously
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 20:01):
maybe not that obvious
Aaron Liu (Nov 05 2025 at 20:02):
well, it should at least be true that sepquot(X->Y) is uniform isomorphic to sepquot(X->sepquot(Y))
David Loeffler (Nov 05 2025 at 20:10):
@Aaron Liu If you feel like a challenge, perhaps you might like to try proving SummableUniformlyOn.hasSumUniformlyOn (maybe just for 𝔖 = {s} a singleton) with the [T2Space α] hypothesis removed. (Note that there is no such hypothesis in Summable.hasSum.)
Aaron Liu (Nov 06 2025 at 02:18):
David Loeffler said:
Aaron Liu If you feel like a challenge, perhaps you might like to try proving SummableUniformlyOn.hasSumUniformlyOn (maybe just for
𝔖 = {s}a singleton) with the[T2Space α]hypothesis removed. (Note that there is no such hypothesis in Summable.hasSum.)
Yongxi Lin (Aaron) (Nov 08 2025 at 10:10):
A related PR #31377
Last updated: Dec 20 2025 at 21:32 UTC