Zulip Chat Archive
Stream: Brownian motion
Topic: PseudoEMetricSpace in Kolmogorov-Chentsov
Rémy Degenne (Nov 21 2025 at 08:43):
This is motivated by a discussion I had with @Peter Pfaffelhuber , who was surprised that we need EMetricSpace and not PseudoEMetricSpace for the space of values of the process to get the existence of a Hölder modification in the Kolmogorov-Chentsov theorem (for this theorem for example).
Why do we need the space to be metric, and not only pseudo-metric? Well, to obtain a modification of a process , such that for all , a.e., we say that it suffices to show a.e. So this is the (first) reason, but then comes the question of what we can get in a pseudo-metric space. Can we get a "distance zero modification", such that a.e., or are we using metric elsewhere?
It turns out that we are currently using metric elsewhere.
When we build a Hölder modification for one exponent , we also prove that it is a limit of : we have (simplifying a bit). Same thing for for another exponent. We then want to build a modification that is Hölder for both exponents, and for measurability reasons, the construction we use needs the pairs to be measurable for all (remember that we don't have a second-countable space, so measurability of the pair does not follow from the individual measurability alone).
The way we currently do it is roughly as follows: we know that is measurable for all . We write and that last limit is measurable. But here is the issue: the last equality uses the fact that the space is metric and not just pseudo-metric.
In a pseudo-metric space, say that and are at distance 0. Then if tends to as tends to in , then it tends also to . The way the limit is defined in Lean is that it picks an arbitrary element among the possible limits.
Then we can have but and the equality we used does not hold.
I'm curious about possible solutions to get to a distance zero modification that is Hölder for several exponents. I started trying to generalize in the draft PR https://github.com/RemyDegenne/brownian-motion/pull/300 and that's how I encountered the issue.
Sébastien Gouëzel (Nov 21 2025 at 08:49):
Naïve question: if d (X, Y) = 0 everywhere and X is measurable, is Y also measurable?
Rémy Degenne (Nov 21 2025 at 08:52):
That would replace the equality of limits with the distance zero statement, and then we would transfer measurability that way, I see. I don't know the answer to that question yet, though.
Sébastien Gouëzel (Nov 21 2025 at 08:54):
The question is whether {a | Y a \in U} is measurable when U is open. But if d (X, Y) = 0 everywhere, X a belongs to U iff Y a does, so this set is {a | X a \in U}, so it is indeed measurable. Right?
Rémy Degenne (Nov 21 2025 at 08:57):
Looks good. That's solved then. Thanks! :tada: I'll implement that.
Last updated: Dec 20 2025 at 21:32 UTC