Zulip Chat Archive

Stream: Brownian motion

Topic: PseudoEMetricSpace in Kolmogorov-Chentsov


Rémy Degenne (Nov 21 2025 at 08:43):

This is motivated by a discussion I had with @Peter Pfaffelhuber , who was surprised that we need EMetricSpace and not PseudoEMetricSpace for the space of values of the process to get the existence of a Hölder modification in the Kolmogorov-Chentsov theorem (for this theorem for example).

Why do we need the space to be metric, and not only pseudo-metric? Well, to obtain a modification YY of a process XX, such that for all tt, Yt=XtY_t = X_t a.e., we say that it suffices to show dE(Yt,Xt)=0d_E(Y_t, X_t) = 0 a.e. So this is the (first) reason, but then comes the question of what we can get in a pseudo-metric space. Can we get a "distance zero modification", such that dE(Yt,Xt)=0d_E(Y_t, X_t) = 0 a.e., or are we using metric elsewhere?
It turns out that we are currently using metric elsewhere.

When we build a Hölder modification for one exponent YtβY_t^\beta, we also prove that it is a limit of XX: we have Ytβ=limsT,stXsY_t^\beta = \lim_{s \in T', s \to t} X_s (simplifying a bit). Same thing for YtγY_t^\gamma for another exponent. We then want to build a modification that is Hölder for both exponents, and for measurability reasons, the construction we use needs the pairs (Xsβ,Ytγ)(X_s^\beta, Y_t^\gamma) to be measurable for all (s,t)(s, t) (remember that we don't have a second-countable space, so measurability of the pair does not follow from the individual measurability alone).
The way we currently do it is roughly as follows: we know that (Xs,Xt)(X_s, X_t) is measurable for all (s,t)(s,t). We write (Ysβ,Ytγ)=(limsT,ssXs,limtT,ttXt)=lims,tT,(s,t)(s,t)(Xs,Xt)(Y_s^\beta, Y_t^\gamma) = (\lim_{s' \in T', s' \to s} X_s', \lim_{t' \in T', t' \to t} X_t') = \lim_{s',t' \in T', (s',t') \to (s,t)} (X_s', X_t') and that last limit is measurable. But here is the issue: the last equality uses the fact that the space is metric and not just pseudo-metric.

In a pseudo-metric space, say that ys(1)y_s^{(1)} and ys(2)y_s^{(2)} are at distance 0. Then if XsX_s' tends to ys(1)y_s^{(1)} as ss' tends to ss in TT', then it tends also to ys(2)y_s^{(2)}. The way the limit is defined in Lean is that it picks an arbitrary element among the possible limits.
Then we can have (limsT,ssXs,limtT,ttXt)=(ys(1),yt)(\lim_{s' \in T', s' \to s} X_s', \lim_{t' \in T', t' \to t} X_t') = (y_s^{(1)}, y_t) but lims,tT,(s,t)(s,t)(Xs,Xt)=(ys(2),yt)\lim_{s',t' \in T', (s',t') \to (s,t)} (X_s', X_t') = (y_s^{(2)}, y_t) and the equality we used does not hold.

I'm curious about possible solutions to get to a distance zero modification that is Hölder for several exponents. I started trying to generalize in the draft PR https://github.com/RemyDegenne/brownian-motion/pull/300 and that's how I encountered the issue.

Sébastien Gouëzel (Nov 21 2025 at 08:49):

Naïve question: if d (X, Y) = 0 everywhere and X is measurable, is Y also measurable?

Rémy Degenne (Nov 21 2025 at 08:52):

That would replace the equality of limits with the distance zero statement, and then we would transfer measurability that way, I see. I don't know the answer to that question yet, though.

Sébastien Gouëzel (Nov 21 2025 at 08:54):

The question is whether {a | Y a \in U} is measurable when U is open. But if d (X, Y) = 0 everywhere, X a belongs to U iff Y a does, so this set is {a | X a \in U}, so it is indeed measurable. Right?

Rémy Degenne (Nov 21 2025 at 08:57):

Looks good. That's solved then. Thanks! :tada: I'll implement that.


Last updated: Dec 20 2025 at 21:32 UTC