Zulip Chat Archive
Stream: Formal conjectures
Topic: Erdős Problem 288
Anirudh Rao (Sep 21 2025 at 02:36):
Hey I'm formalizing Erdős Problem 288 and I was a bit confused by the wording of the last sentence, "It is perhaps true with two intervals replaced by any k intervals."
This is how I've formalized it now:
theorem erdos_288.variants.k_intervals : ∃ k, Set.Finite { I : Fin k → ℕ × ℕ |
∃ n : ℕ, (∑ j : Fin k, ∑ nⱼ ∈ Set.Icc (I j).1 (I j).2, (nⱼ⁻¹ : ℚ)) = n
} ↔ answer(sorry) := by
sorry
I'm not sure if $k$ is supposed to be an exist or forall quantifier... what do you all think?
Yan Yablonovskiy 🇺🇦 (Sep 21 2025 at 05:43):
I guess I would be nervous about the case of k = 1, and (1,1). And perhaps also the casting between Rat and Nat.
Anirudh Rao (Sep 21 2025 at 22:03):
Oh, true! I didn't realize I was also assuming k > 2 but not stating it. Thanks for the catch!
Anirudh Rao (Sep 21 2025 at 22:06):
I think the casting works out fine. Or at the very least, I can't find mistakes
Moritz Firsching (Sep 22 2025 at 09:21):
Looking at the original source
[ErGr80] Erdős, P. and Graham, R., *Old and new problems and results in combinatorial number theory*. Monographies de L'Enseignement Mathematique (1980) perhaps the quantifiers become more clear (on page 34):
Suppose we let denote the sum . It is probably true that is an integer only finitely often. However this will probably be difficult to prove since we can not even show that is an integer only a finite number of times. Perhaps for each , can be an integer only finitely often. It seems likely that for large , we can always write with (e.g., see [Hah (78)]). An example [Mon (79)] of such a representation for 2 is given by taking the denominators . It is not hard to show that
Anirudh Rao (Sep 25 2025 at 03:29):
Thanks! :slight_smile: I couldn't find the original problem from the site, the site's linked pdf doesn't include all the pages that are here
Last updated: Dec 20 2025 at 21:32 UTC